This verse has been frequently cited by Jews, Muslims, and agnostics as one of the main arguments in the case against Christ, Christianity, and the New Testament. If Jesus predicted that He would come again in His generation, as many have interpreted Matthew 24:34 to teach, then His prediction clearly failed, and (so goes the argument) the veracity of His messianic claims, of Christianity in general, and of the New Testament Scriptures, is called into question. Did Jesus mistakenly predict that He would come again the second time in His first-century generation? Or is it the interpreters of this passage who have failed to understand its meaning?
